Remember, this is Gay Pride Month. Some LGBTQI2S+ may be celebrating Sappho and the isle of Lesbos.
It is not an accident that in the Graeco-Roman world, the apostle Paul spoke of the same-sex behaviours and abominable sexual depravity enumerated in Romans 1:20-32. If such detestable behaviour didn't exist in the Greek and Roman Empires, why would he address it?
If, while speaking at the Aeropagus, a prominent rock outcropping located northwest of the Acropolis in Athens, Greece, at Mars Hill, other gods in the Pantheon were not being worshipped alongside the altar inscribed "to the unknown God" as described in Acts 17:23, why would he address it?
If going after strange flesh did not occur in Israel as described in Jude 1:7 why would Jude, the Lord's own brother, address it?
If Jesus -- according to some gays and lesbians and transsexuals disputing the historical existence of Sodom and Gomorrah -- is said to have not known anything about homosexual behaviour in the Old Testament and therefore never spoke on the subject of homosexuality because He wasn't born yet at the time Sodom and Gomorrah were wiped off the map in a firestorm described in Genesis 17:18-19, why would He say, "Before Abraham was, I AM" in John 8:58, and why would He say in Luke 10:18, "I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven"?
If so-called gay Christians insist Jesus never spoke against homosexuals and lesbians in the Graeco-Roman world, because He didn't know what happened in Israel under righteous kings Josiah (2 Kings 23:7-8), Asa (1 Kings 15:11-13) and Jehoshaphat (1 King 22:46), and He wasn't there when they took down the altars and deported the sodomites from Israel, why would He say He was one with the Father (John 10:30) and being one with the Father, by definition, is seeing and witnessing the same things the Father saw and witnessed before the Messiah came to earth in human form in Bethlehem, Israel?
Think about it.
Remember, this is Gay Pride Month. Some LGBTQI2S+ may be celebrating Sappho and the isle of Lesbos.
It is not an accident that in the Graeco-Roman world, the apostle Paul spoke of the same-sex behaviours and abominable sexual depravity enumerated in Romans 1:20-32. If such detestable behaviour didn't exist in the Greek and Roman Empires, why would he address it?
If, while speaking at the Aeropagus, a prominent rock outcropping located northwest of the Acropolis in Athens, Greece, at Mars Hill, other gods in the Pantheon were not being worshipped alongside the altar inscribed "to the unknown God" as described in Acts 17:23, why would he address it?
If going after strange flesh did not occur in Israel as described in Jude 1:7 why would Jude, the Lord's own brother, address it?
If Jesus -- according to some gays and lesbians and transsexuals disputing the historical existence of Sodom and Gomorrah -- is said to have not known anything about homosexual behaviour in the Old Testament and therefore never spoke on the subject of homosexuality because He wasn't born yet at the time Sodom and Gomorrah were wiped off the map in a firestorm described in Genesis 17:18-19, why would He say, "Before Abraham was, I AM" in John 8:58, and why would He say in Luke 10:18, "I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven"?
If so-called gay Christians insist Jesus never spoke against homosexuals and lesbians in the Graeco-Roman world, because He didn't know what happened in Israel under righteous kings Josiah (2 Kings 23:7-8), Asa (1 Kings 15:11-13) and Jehoshaphat (1 King 22:46), and He wasn't there when they took down the altars and deported the sodomites from Israel, why would He say He was one with the Father (John 10:30) and being one with the Father, by definition, is seeing and witnessing the same things the Father saw and witnessed before the Messiah came to earth in human form in Bethlehem, Israel?
Think about it.
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